2020—2021 学年上期期中试卷
高三 英语
（时间：120 分钟，满分：150 分）
一、听力部分（本大题共 20 小题，每小题 1.5 分，共 30 分）
第一节(共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分)
听下面 5 段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最
佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对
话仅读一遍。
1.Where does this conversation probably take place?
A.In a bookstore. B. In a classroom. C. In a library.
2.At what time will the film begin?
A. 7:20. B. 7:15. C. 7:00.
3.What are the two speakers mainly talking about?
A.Their friend Jane. B. A weekend trip. C. A radio program.
4.What will the woman probably do?
A.Catch a train. B. See the man off. C. Go shopping.
5.Why did the woman apologize?
A.She made a late delivery.
B.She went to the wrong place.
C.She couldn’t take the cake back.
第二节(共 15 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 22.5 分)
听下面 5 段对话或独白，每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个
选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5 秒钟。听
完后，各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第 6 段材料，回答第 6、7 题。
6.Whose CD is broken?
A.Kathy’s. B. Mum’s. C. Jack’s.
7.What does the boy promise to do for the girl?
A.Buy her a new CD. B. Do some cleaning. C. Give her 10 dollars.
听第 7 段材料，回答第 8、9 题。
8.What did the man think of the meal?
A.Just so-so. B. Quite satisfactory. C. A bit disappointing.
9.What was the 15% on the bill paid for?
A.The food. B. The drinks. C. The service.
听第 8 段材料，回答第 10 至 12 题。
10.Why is the man at the shop?
A.To order a camera for his wife.
B.To have a camera repaired.
C.To get a camera changed.
11.What colour does the man want?
A.Pink. B. Black. C. Orange.
12.What will the man do afterwards?
A.Make a phone call. B. Wait until further notice. C. Come again the next day.
听第 9 段材料，回答第 13 至 16 题。
13.What would Joe probably do during the Thanksgiving holiday?
A.Go to a play. B. Stay at home. C. Visit Kingston.
14.What is Ariel going to do in Toronto?
A.Attend a party. B. Meet her aunt. C. See a car show.
15.Why is Ariel in a hurry to leave?
A.To call up Betty. B. To buy some DVDs. C. To pick up Daniel.
16.What might be the relationship between the speakers?
A.Classmates. B. Fellow workers. C. Guide and tourist.
听第 10 段材料，回答第 17 至 20 题。
17.Where does Thomas Manning work?
A.In the Guinness Company. B. At a radio station. C. In a museum.
18.Where did the idea of a book of records come from?
A.A bird-shooting trip. B. A visit to Europe. C. A television talk show.
19.When did Sir Hugh's first book of records appear?
A. In 1875. B. In 1950. C. In 1955.
20.What are the two speakers going to talk about next?
A.More records of unusual facts.
B.The founder of the company.
C.The oldest person in the world.
二、阅读理解（本大题共 20 小题，每小题 2 分，共 40 分）
第一节 （共 15 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 30 分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C 和 D 四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
Explore the villages around Hartbridge
Many visitors came to Hartbridge to see wonderful art galleries, museums and fantastic parks.
This brochure will tell you what you can see if you take a short bus ride out of the city.
Camberwell
The historic village of Camberwell was once the home of the wealthy Hugo family, who
lived in a huge country house, Camberwell Court, and owned all the land in the area. You can
spend a whole day walking around the house and gardens and there is a small exhibition about the
family, a children's play area, a gift shop and a restaurant.
Hidcot
Hidcot is situated on the river Owell. Visitors should go to the Nature Park to the south of the
village, where there are large numbers of rare birds and flowers. In Hidcot, you can take a
two-hour river cruise to see the countryside and learn about the local wildlife from a guide, or hire
a boat and explore the river at your leisure.
Tatterbridge
The village was home of the children's writer Jane Potter, whose stories of Benjamin Bear are
loved by adults and children around the world. Jane Potter’s home is now a museum and is well
worth a visit just for its wonderful gardens. Lovers of Jane Potter’s books should also walk to the
Green Valley woods, which have not changed since Jane Potter wrote her stories there 100 years
ago.
Moordale
It is the highest mountain in the area, where many industries grew up, including the coal
industry, a paper factory and a cotton factory, all of which closed down in the 19th century. If you
walk from the village center up the hill to the north, you can still see the paths where horses used
to carry the coal. There is a four-mile walk around the village which has some amazing views.
21. Which village may have greater attractions for bird lovers?
A. Hidcot B. Moordale C. Camberwell D. Tatterbridge
22. What do Camberwell and Tatterbridge have in common?
A. They run some wonderful children's bookshops.
B. They are the hometowns of some famous writers.
C. They provide visitors with views of historic houses.
D. They are well-known for their newly created gardens.
23. What do we know about Moordale?
A. It used to be an industrial village.
B. It is the flattest village of the four.
C. It has won popularity for its cotton fields.
D. It is a perfect place for people to ride horses.
B
If you like to spend your time up to your elbows in dirt and have the ability to grow plants
that don't wither and die, you may have been told you have a green thumb. This is not a medical
emergency, but a slang term meant to show one's natural talent for gardening. But where did the
phrase come from?
Both green thumb and green fingers have been common expressions in England and the
United States for well over a century, with the Oxford English Dictionary citing use of green
fingers as early as 1906 from the novel The Misses make-believe by Mary Stuart Boyd. Green
thumb, meanwhile, was used first in 1937 Ironwood Daily Globe newspaper article, which
described the phrase as gardening slang.
There are several stories about its origins. Some believe it is a result of growing potted plants,
which can often have green algae（藻）on the underside that coat hands. Others point to a story
about King Edward I and his love of green peas, which were shelled by subservient workers －
one would be honoured for doing the most work and having the greenest thumb. There is also the
fact that plants contain chorophyll (叶绿素) which can easily discolour your hands.
However the phrase was cultivated, we have a pretty good idea of how it caught on. In the
1940s, wartime Britain enjoyed a popular gardening radio show titled In Your Garden hosted by
C.H. Middleton that made use of both green thumb and green fingers.
Why, then, is the phrase focused more on the thumb when all of your fingers are likely to get
discoloured? It might have something to do with an old English proverb: "An honest miller (磨坊
主) has a golden thumb." The quality of corn flour could be judged by rubbing it between the
forefinger and thumb. Mixed together in the collective consciousness, these two expressions may
have resulted in the green thumb we hear about today.
24. What can we learn about the two slang terms from paragraph 2?
A. They have different meanings at first.
B. Green thumb was preferred by Americans.
C. They were first included in English dictionaries.
D. Green fingers appeared earlier in written history.
25. The stories about the sources of green thumb are all related to .
A. chlorophyll in plants
B. King Edward I's hobby
C. the green algae that grow on pots
D. King Edward I's skilled gardeners
26. Why is "thumb" used in the slang "green thumb" rather than other fingers?
A. The thumb is raised to show praise.
B. "Thumb" is often used in English sayings.
C. People connect the phrase with the "golden thumb".
D. People think other fingers are useless in gardening.
27. What is the best title for the text?
A. How did "green thumb" come to English?
B. Why do westerners prefer the finger "thumb"?
C. Why are gardeners said to have a "green thumb"?
D. Is there a relationship between "green thumb" and "thumb"?
C
Galapagos Giant tortoises (巨型陆龟), sometimes called Gardeners of the Galapagos, are
creatures of habit. In the cold dry season, the highlands of the volcanoes are covered in cloud
which allows plants to grow despite the absence of rain. In the lower areas, however, plants are
not available all year round. Adult tortoises thus spend the dry season in the higher areas, and go
back to the lower, relatively warmer areas where there are plentiful eatable plants when the rainy
season begins. The tortoises often take the same migration routes over many years in order to find
perfect plants and temperatures. The timing of this migration is important for keeping their energy
levels high.
Researchers used GPS to track the timing and patterns of tortoise migration over many years.
They expected the migration to be timed with current environmental conditions because many
other migratory animals do it that way. However, tortoise migration is weakly related to current
conditions such as rain and temperature. It is unclear at this point whether they are basing their
migration decisions on memories of past conditions or if they are simply incorrectly assessing
current local conditions.
Luckily, probably because of their long lives of up to 100 years and large body size, bad
timing of migration has smaller effects on giant tortoises compared to small, short-lived animals.
Giant tortoises can go up to a year without eating and survive, while other migratory animals
might eat more often to keep their energy levels high.
Giant tortoises are important ecosystem engineers in the Galapagos, and their migration is
key to the survival of many plants. How the difference in tortoises' migration time will affect the
rest of the ecosystem is still unclear. It is quite possible that the mistiming of migration will keep
increasing in the future. "One concern is that at some point in the future," says Bastille-Rousseau,
lead author of the study, "migration may not be a perfect strategy for tortoises. There may be a
reduction in the number of tortoises doing these long travels. This would likely have great effects
on the whole ecosystem."
28. What do we know about Galapagos giant tortoises?
A. They prefer low temperatures.
B. They like living in the highlands.
C. They always hate the rainy season.
D. They seldom change migration routes.
29. What have researchers found out about the timing of giant tortoise migration?
A. The weather has much to do with it.
B. It disagrees with current conditions.
C. The research has strong effects on it.
D. It is decided by the tortoises' memories.
30. What might help giant tortoises survive the migration at the wrong time?
A. Their restless energy. B. Their different body shape.
C. Their habit of eating healthily. D. Their ability to go without food.
31. What can we infer from Bastille-Rousseau's words?
A. Migration is the only choice for giant tortoises in the future.
B. Damage to the ecosystem will reduce the number of giant tortoises.
C. Giant tortoise migration plays a major role in Galapagos’ ecosystem.
D. Giant tortoises protect the ecosystem by their different migration time.
D
Artificial Intelligence (AI) advice is as influential as humans', but positive crowd views still
overpower.
In a study, researchers found that machines that make recommendations －or AI experts
－ were as influential as human experts when the AI experts recommended which photo users
should add to their online business profiles. However, both AI and human experts failed to budge
them if their feedback was negative and went against popular views among other users, said S.
Shyam Sundar, a professor of Media Effects.
Because people are increasingly using social media to look for feedback, studies suggest that
expert opinions and the bandwagon effect (从众效应) may be important factors in influencing
decisions. According to Jinping Wang, a doctoral candidate in mass communication and first
author of the study. "Nowadays, we often turn to online platforms for opinions from other
people －like our peers and experts － before making a decision," said Wang. AI experts are
often less expensive than human experts and they can also work 24 hours a day, which, Wang
suggests, might make them appealing to online businesses.
The researchers also found that the AI's group status (群体地位) － in this case, national
origin was pointed out － did not seem to affect a person's acceptance of its recommendation.
Among human experts, however, an expert from a similar national origin who offered a negative
opinion of a photograph tended to be more influential than a human expert from an unknown
country who offered a similar negative rating of a photograph.
While findings that suggest group status may not affect whether a person values the view of
AI experts sound like good news, Sundar suggests that the same cultural biases (偏见) might still
be at work in AI experts for they could be hidden in the programming and training data.
"It can be both good － and bad － because it all depends on what you feed AI, " said
Sundar. "While it is good to believe in AI's ability to transcend (超越) cultural biases, we have to
keep in mind that if you train the AI on pictures from one culture, they could give misleading
recommendations on pictures meant for use in other cultural contexts."
32. What do the underlined words "budge them" in paragraph 2 mean?
A. Raise their spirits. B. Satisfy their needs.
C. Change their ideas. D. Fire their imagination.
33. Why do users often turn to AI experts?
A. AI experts are more knowledgeable.
B. AI experts are on hand and cost less.
C. AI experts are less influenced by feelings.
D. AI experts are so new as to be more attractive.
34. Which expert's negative assessments is a person more likely to believe?
A. An expert who has great achievements in arts.
B. An expert with better personality and attitude.
C. A foreign expert who is very popular worldwide.
D. An expert from countries with similar cultures to his.
35. What did Sundar mean by the last paragraph?
A. People should have a mind of their own.
B. People should be able to tell good from bad.
C. People should know AI's hidden cultural biases.
D. People should be trained how to use AI properly.
第二节 (共 5 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 10 分)
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余
选项。
Doctors have successfully kept a heart beating in a container for 24 hours, bringing hope to
thousands of patients across the world in need of a life-saving transplant.
36 However, the "game-changing" device can preserve a heart up to six times
longer than existing methods. It provides the heart with oxygen and vital nutrients, allowing more
time to transport it.
The device, named ULiSSES, fits into a carry-on box, so hearts can be flown around the
world. 37 And it is expected to cost under $ 100,000. University of Texas
researchers have successfully tested on pig hearts, which are similar to ours. 38
Dr. Rafael Veraza presented the findings on pig hearts at the annual meeting of the American
Association for the Advancement of Science in Seattle.
" 39 Many years later, it is done much the same way," Dr. Veraza said.
"Donated hearts generally remain viable ( 可 存 活 的 ) for around four hours using traditional
preservation methods. 40 Being able to keep a heart viable for 24 hours means you
could transport it almost anywhere in the world, and this could save many lives."
A. It is expected to come into use soon.
B. The extra time could bring more hope to patients.
C. Usually, a donated heart can only last about four hours.
D. It works without being affected by temperature or air pressure.
E. The pig hearts remained viable for 24 hours after they were removed.
F. The first heart was transported more than 50 years ago by putting it on ice.
G. They plan to test it on human hearts in three months and put it on the market within a year.
第三部分 语言知识运用 (共两节，满分 45 分)
第一节 完型填空 (共 20 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 30 分)
阅读下面的短文，从短文后各题所给的 A、B、C 和 D 四个选项中，选出可以填入空白
处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
Each of us struggles for self-respect and self-worth to some degree. I spent much time trying
to achieve perfection in every aspect of my life.
I was a happy kid with a lot of friends and a supportive family. But growing up was really
41 and even scary sometimes.
During my childhood, I was constantly involved in something that included people's views
about my achievements or my 42 . I wanted everyone's praise and acceptance, but I was my
own toughest critic (挑剔的人).
After I graduated from high school, my 43 to be "thin" began to trouble me. I began
trying to diet by 44 my food.
In the beginning, I felt great — attractive and successful, almost superhuman. I even thought
that I was better than everyone else. What I didn't see was that I was slowly 45 myself.
People around me began to 46 my weight loss. They said with concern. "You're losing
too much weight." "Elisa, you're so thin." All their words only suggested that I was getting closer
to " 47 ".
Sadly, I took my physical 48 as the first important thing in my life, 49 that it was
the way to become successful and accepted.
Then I cut down on my 50 more and more, until a 51 day consisting of half a
teaspoon of nonfat yogurt in the morning and a cup of grape juice at night.
But my poor 52 began to cause me to lose 53 . Then one night, like many nights
before, I couldn't sleep, and felt as though my heart might beat out of my chest. I tried to 54 ,
but I couldn’t. The beating became so rapid and so strong that I could no longer 55 . What I
had done to diet nearly caused me to have a heart attack. I stood up, and immediately fell down. I
was really 56 , and I knew I needed help. My roommate rushed me to the 57 , and then I
began the long road to my 58 . It took a lot — doctors, nurses, nutritionists, food
supplements...
And more importantly, a sense of what was true about myself got my life back on track with
reality. I realized that, with my 59 of trying to be "perfect" on the 60 , I had sacrificed
who I was on the inside. What I know now is, we are — each and every one of us — already
perfect.
41.A. natural B. easy C. hard D. rapid
42.A. performances B. backgrounds C. scores D. failures
43.A. problem B. desire C. way D. promise
44.A. controlling B. checking C. collecting D. balancing
45. A. killing B. forgetting C. asking D. questioning
46. A. help B. accept C. reject D. notice
47.A. perfection B. devotion C. ambition D. attention
48.A. strength B. exercise C. appearance D. examination
49.A. believing B. realizing C. pretending D. declaring
50.A. expense B. movement C. food D. travel
51.A. pleasant B. difficult C. typical D. different
52.A. memory B. nutrition C. knowledge D. taste
53.A. weight B. hope C. sleep D. heart
54.A. relax B. walk C. cry D. talk
55.A. breathe B. resist C. wake D. remember
56.A. scared B. annoyed C. discouraged D. disappointed
57.A. bed B. hospital C. school D. office
58.A. glory B. discovery C. recovery D. victory
59.A. skill B. decision C. experience D. deal
60.A. whole B. face C. mind D. outside
第二节 (共 10 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 15 分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入 1 个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Regular exercise can increase your body's energy consumption and it is also a great way
61 (improve) your productivity and mental focus throughout the day. The increased energy
levels that occur as a result of exercise 62 (be) also likely to lead to more active habits
throughout the day, such as taking the stairs rather than the lift, or 63
(walk) to speak to workmates instead of emailing. This increased activity will then bring physical
and mental benefits.
Physical activity can help us to improve the 64 (long) and the quality of our
sleep, which will in turn make further contributions 65 our health and well being.
While there is no absolute figure we should aim for in terms of sleep time, most people will find
that they fall somewhere between six to nine hours a night. Quality is 66
(sure) more important than quantity.
Regular physical activity can help us to manage life's stress much 67 (well) as
a distraction technique. As discussed, exercise can help you achieve a more positive outlook as
well as improving sleep quality, both of 68 are important in managing stress. Also,
69 is thought that exercise can help to improve our ability to activate the control centers in
our brain and the nervous system, which is very 70 (help) when we are under stress.
第四部分 写作(共两节，满分 35 分)
第一节 短文改错(共 10 小题；每小题 l 分，满分 10 分)
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共
有 10 处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧)，并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除：把多余的词用斜线(＼)划掉。
修改：在错的词下画一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意：1. 每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；
2. 只允许修改 10 处，多者(从第 11 处起)不计分。
There are a lot researches showing that when we are kind to others, they become happier. In a
sense, giving is much more better than receiving. If you spend time practice three acts of kindness
each day, you will improve your level of happiness, especial if you practice such kindness often.
An act of kindness can be as simple as holding the door open for someone, buying a classmate a
favorite drink in the morning or giving moneys to charity. You can also call someone in need and
offered a friendly ear. It is also an useful choice for you to cook a delicious meal for the family
despite being tiring.
第二节 书面表达 (满分 25 分)
假定你是李华，想邀请你的交换生朋友 Linda 参加学校举办的中国民族舞培训班，请你
给她写封邮件，内容包括：
1.写信目的；
2.活动介绍；
3.期待回复。
注意：1.词数 100 左右；
2.开头和结尾已经给出，但不计入总词数；
3.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
Dear Linda,
Yours,
Li Hua
2020—2021 学年上期期中试卷
参考答案
一、听力：1-5CABCA 6-10CBBCC 11-15ABBAC 16-20BAACA
二．阅读理解：
21-23 ACA 24-27 DACC 28-31 DBDC 32-35 CBDC 36-40 CDGFE
三．完形填空：
41-45 CDBAA 46-50 DACAC 51-55 CBCAA 56-60 ABCCD
四． 语法填空：
61. to improve 62. are 63. walking 64. length 65. to
66. surely 67. better 68. which 69. it 70. helpful
五．短文改错：
1. lot 后加 of 2. they→we 3. 去掉 more 4. practice→practicing 5. especial→expecially
6. buy→ buying
7. moneys→money 8. offered→ offer 9. an→a 10. tiring→ tired
六．书面表达：
参考范文 1
Dear Linda,
How is everything going? I'm writing to sincerely invite you to participate in the
training course of Chinese folk dance organized by our school. The details are as follows.
With the intention of adding fun to our school life, as well as arousing our interest in
folk culture, this training course offers as a perfect opportunity to experience the beauty of
dance in person. By attending the course once a week, you will be able to not only shape your
body, but also have a better understanding of Chinese culture. What’s more, there will be
various kinds of activities to enjoy, such as appreciating dance masters’ performances,
attending lectures themed folk dance, to name a few. I guarantee that once you come, you
will never regret.
Your early reply will be highly appreciated.
Yours,
Li Hua
参考范文 2.
Dear Linda,
Learning that you show a great interest in Chinese culture, I am writing to invite you
to sign up for a training course concerning Chinese folk dance in our school.
With the intention of keeping these traditional treasure our alive, the course intended
for students who have an affection for folk dance is well designed to provide a platform
where students can practice dancing in a harmonious atmosphere under the professional
guidance. Members will also be given valuable chances to involve themselves in a wide range
of activities, including watching appealing performances given by awesome dancers and
preparing for some important competitions on behalf of our schools. What deserves your
special attention is that everyone is required to attend the training course on a regular basis.
I would appreciate it if you could accept my invitation, please reply at the earliest
convenience.
Yours,
Li Hua
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